Today's entry continues yesterday's in which I talked about where the English language came from. It most probably didn't come from the language of the Anglo-Saxon invaders as everyone today thinks, but was always spoken in England. So the men of England were already speaking English when the Anglo-Saxons arrived.
Not content with speaking only about the origins of English, MJ Harper in his book, "The History of Britain: The Shocking Truth About the English Language", also spoke about the origins of the Romance languages. It is accepted as fact that they came out of the Latin of the Roman invaders. If so, why don't people today in North Africa and the Levant, and the various other lands that were part of the Roman Empire, like Britain and western Germany, speak a Latin-like language too? You'd think they would, wouldn't you?
The most probable reason for the peoples of today's France, Spain, Portugal and whatnot, speaking Latin like languages, is that they always did speak them, and these were what they were already speaking when the Romans arrived.
To repeat what I said last time (and I was only regurgitating what MJ Harper had said), people just don't don't give up their own languages for the language of an invader. Why, then, should the peoples of France, Spain, Portugal and whatnot, have been any different?
Wholesale language replacement only happens when the locals are swamped in numbers by the invaders, or are wiped out by them. Since there is no evidence that this happened in Roman-occupied France, Spain, Portugal and whatnot, it is most likely that today's Romance languages were always spoken by the forefathers of today's Frenchmen, Spaniards, Portuguese and whatnot.
If you say otherwise, the burden of proof is on you.